Economics has gotten intensely empirical over the last decade, which makes many of the debates on theoretical methodology and on heterodoxy versus orthodoxy frankly irrelevant. When I received my PhD in 1985, anyone who was academically ambitious and whose fields were international trade or economic development (as mine were) would not think of doing an empirical dissertation. Only labor economics was somewhat different.
It is a very different world now. You can hardly publish an applied theory piece in these areas if you do not have at least a few regressions to go with it--and you better make sure you pay serious attention to specification and endogeneity. In the (bad) old days, I remember that it was often enough to say that you had instrumented for a potentially endogenous variable, while hiding the (typically inadequate) instrument list in a footnote.
But does empirical analysis ever help resolve important policy questions? This is the question that a post from my colleague George Borjas got me thinking about. I asked myself: is there something about the world that I believe in that I may have not have, absent some empirical evidence that convinced me?
I must confess answers did not come very easily. But here are three important examples.
1. Many development economists have been traditionally concerned that the "structural" features of low-income economies make them unresponsive to the typical market-based, price signals. If there were not ample evidence that poor country exports respond robustly to real exchange rates, or that poor farmers respond strongly to prices of their crops, I may have become a structuralist too.
2. Another strand in development thinking--going back to Sir Arthur Lewis and Simon Kuznets at least, contends that inequality is not only inevitable in the earlier stages of growth, but that it is actually good for growth as it enables the rich (who are the only ones assumed to save and invest) to have the resources with which they can stimulate economic growth. But by now we have enough accumulated evidence to discount this story. The least that can be said is that more inequality is not conducive to higher economic growth. It may even go in the reverse direction, but the evidence is not terribly strong on that either (despite one of my own early papers).
3. I might also have believed that democracy, whatever its other merits, is not very good for growth, and that the kind of reforms required to generate development require some form of authoritarianism. One again, the empirical evidence soundly refutes this view. Democracies do not pay a growth penalty, and on top have other redeeming economic features (such as better distribution, lower instability, and greater predictability).
Can readers come up with other examples?
UPDATE: Gallagher asks whether I am backing off from my reading of the empirical literature that there is no systematic relationship between trade liberalization and economic growth. No, I am not, but I did not want to seem like a broken record, so I left this off. While on this topic, I see much of the profession--at least those who are empirically oriented--from having moved away from an unconditional linkage between trade liberalization and growth. The reigning conventional view is that trade liberalization produces growth only if a number of other conditions are present--if the right institutions are in place, if the macro environment is stable, and so on. The "so on" piece is important, because it leaves us off the hook, in case things still do not work out...
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